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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about a device with this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. When a peer re-establishes a previous connection to the device.
CTS retains all existing SGT mapping entries for 3 minutes
B. If a peer reconnects to the device within 120 seconds of terminating a CTS-SXP connection, the reconciliation timer starts
C. If a peer re-establishes a connection to the device before the hold-down tier expires, the device retains the SGT mapping entries it learned during the previous connection for an additional 3 minutes
D. It sets the internal hold-down timer of the device to 3 minutes
E. When a peer establishes a new connection to the device, CTS retains all existing SGT mapping entries for 3 minutes
F. If a peer reconnects to the device within 180 seconds of terminating a CTS-SXP connection, the reconciliation timer starts
Which four task items need to be performed for an effective risk assessment and to evaluate network posture? (Choose four)
Which two statements about Cisco AMP for Web Security are true? (Choose two)
A. It can detect and block malware and other anomalous traffic before it passes through the Web gateway.
B. It can identify anomalous traffic passing through the Web gateway by comparing it to an established baseline of expected activity
C. It can perform file analysis by sandboxing known malware and comparing unknown files to a local repository of threats
D. It continues monitoring files after they pass the Web gateway
E. It can prevent malicious data exfiltration by blocking critical files from exiting through the Web gateway
F. It can perform reputation-based evaluation and blocking by uploading of incoming files to a cloud-based threat intelligence network
Which two statements about a wireless access point configured with the guest-mode command are true? (Choose two)
A. If one device on a network is configured in guest mode, clients can use the guest mode SSID to connect to any device on the same network
B. It supports associations by clients that perform passive scans
C. It allows associated clients to transmit packets using its SSID
D. It can support more than one guest-mode SSID
E. It allows clients configured without SSID to associate
What are the major components of a Firepower health monitor alert?
A. A health monitor, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy
B. One or more health modules, one more alert responses, and one or more alert actions
C. The severity level, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy
D. One or more health modules, the severity level, and an alert response
E. One health module and one or more alert responses
Which statement about managing Cisco ISE Guest Services is true?
A. Only a Super Admin or System Admin can delete the default Sponsor portal
B. ISE administrators can view and set a guest’s password to a custom value in the sponsor portal
C. ISE administrators can access the Sponsor portal only if they have valid Sponsor accounts
D. By default, an ISE administrator can manage only the guest accounts he or she created in the Sponsor portal
E. Only ISE administrators from an external identity store can be members of a Sponsor group
F. ISE administrator can access the Sponsor portal only from the Guest Access menu
Which two statements about 6to4 tunneling are true?
A. It provides a /48 address block
B. The prefix address of the tunnel is determined by the IPv6 configuration to the interface
C. It supports static and BGPv4 routing
D. It supports managed NAT along the path of the tunnel
E. It provides a /128 address block
F. It supports mutihoming
Which connection mechanism does the eSTREAMER service use to communicate?
B. IPsec tunnels with 3DES encryption only
C. TCP over SSL only
D. EAP-TLS tunnels
E. TCP with optional SSL encryption
F. IPsec tunnels with 3DES or AES encryption
Which two statements about MPP (Management Plane protection. Are true? (Choose two)
A. It is supported on both distributed and hardware-switched platforms
B. Only virtual interfaces associated with physical interfaces are supported
C. It is supported on both active and standby management interfaces
D. Only in-band management interfaces are supported
E. Only virtual interfaces associated with sub-interfaces are supported
F. Only out-of-band management interface are supported
Which two statements about EVPN are true? (Choose two)
A. EVPN routes can advertise VLAN membership and verify the reachability of Ethernet segments
B. EVPN route exchange enables PEs to discover one another and elect a DF
C. It is a next-generation Ethernet L3VPN solution that simplifies control-plane operations and enhances scalability
D. EVPN routes can advertise backbone MAC reachability
E. EVIs allows you to map traffic on one or more VLANs or ports to a Bridge Domain
F. It is a next-generation Ethernet L2VPN solution that supports load balancing at the individual flow level and provides advanced access redundancy
When applying MD5 route authentication on routers running RIP or EIGRP, which two important key chain considerations should be accounted for ? (Choose two)
A. Key 0 of all key chains must match for all routers in the autonomous system
B. No more than three keys should be configured in any single chain
C. Routers should be configured for NTP to synchronize their clocks
D. The Lifetimes of the keys in the chain should overlap
E. Link compression techniques should be disabled on links transporting any MD5 hash
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of the given configuration? (Choose two)
A. It enables botnet filtering in multiple context mode
B. It enables botnet filtering in single context mode
C. It enables the ASA to download the static botnet filter database
D. It enables multiple context mode
E. It enables single context mode
F. It enables the ASA to download the dynamic botnet filter database
Which direct of the crypto key encrypt write rsa command on a router is true ?
A. The device saves the unlocked encrypted key to the NVRAM
B. The device encrypts and locks the key before authenticating it with an external CA server
C. The device unlocks the encrypted key, but the key is lost when the router is reloaded
D. The device locks the encrypted key, but the key is lost when the router is reloaded
E. The device locks the encrypted key and saves is to the NVRAM
If an ASA device is configured as a remote access IPsec server with the RADIUS authentication and password management enabled which type of authentication will it use?
Which statement about deployment policies with the Firepower Management Center is true?
A. The global domain can deploy changes to individuals subdomains
B. The leaf domain can deploy changes to all subdomains simultaneously
C. Deploy tasks can be scheduled to deploy polices automatically
D. All policies are deployed on-demand when the administrator triggers them
E. Polices are deployed automatically when the administrator saves them
Which of these command sequences will send an email to firstname.lastname@example.org using SMTP?
A. MAIL FROM:<email@example.com>
RCPT TO: < firstname.lastname@example.org>
B. MAIL FROM:<email@example.com>
RCPT TO: < firstname.lastname@example.org>
C. HELO invalid.com
MAIL FROM : < email@example.com >
RCPT TO: < firstname.lastname@example.org >
D. HELO invalid.com
MAIL TO: < email@example.com >
Which statement about MDM with the Cisco ISE is true?
A. The MDM’s server certificate must be imported into the Cisco ISE Certificate Store before the MDM and ISE can establish a connection
B. MDM servers can generate custom ACLs for the Cisco ISE to apply to networks devices
C. The Cisco ISE supports limited built-in MDM functionality
D. The Cisco ISE supports a built-in list of MDM dictionary attributes it can use in authorization policies
E. When a mobile endpoint becomes compliant, the Cisco ISE records the updated device status in its internal database
F. If mobile endpoint fails posture compliance, both the user and the administrator are notified immediately
Which are the three scanning engines that the Cisco IronPort dynamic vectoring and streaming engine can use to protect against malware? (Choose three)
What are three technologies that can be used to trace the source of an attack in a network environment with multiple exit/entry points? (Choose three)
A. Remotely-triggered destination-based black holing
B. ICMP Unreachable messages
D. A honey pot
E. Traffic scrubbing
What are two of the valid IPv6 extension headers? (Choose two)
C. Authentication Header
D. Next Header
F. Hop Limit
Which three of these are properties of RC4? (Choose three)
A. It is used in AES
B. It is an asymmetric cipher
C. It is a stream cipher
D. It is a symmetric cipher
E. It is used is SSL
F. It is a block cipher
What are two important guidelines to follow when implementing VTP? (Choose two)
A. Enabling VTP pruning on a server will enable the feature for the entire management domain
B. When using secure mode VTP, only configure management domain passwords on VTP servers
C. All switches in the VTP domain must run the same version of VTP
D. Use of the VTP multi-domain feature should be restricted to migration and temporary implementation
E. CDP must be enabled on all switches in the VTP management domain
Which statement about the Cisco AMP Virtual Private Cloud Appliance is true for deployments in air-gape mode?
A. The appliance can perform disposition lookup against either the Protect DB or the AMP public clZud.
B. The appliance evaluates files against the threat intelligence and disposition information residing on the Update Host.
C. The Update Host automatically downloads updates and deploys them to the Protect DB on a daily basis.
D. The appliance can perform disposition lookups against the Protect DB without an Internet Connection.
E. The amp-sync tool syncs the threat-intelligence repository on the appliance directly with AMP public cloud.
Drag and Drop Question
Drag each component of an Adaptive Wireless IPS deployment on the left to the matching description on the right
Which two cipher mechanisms does PCoIP use? (Choose two)
B. AES 256
C. Suite B
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